There are many gifts that a person receives upon becoming a Christian, such as all spiritual blessings and forgiveness of sins (Ephesians 1:3,7). But there are those today in the religious realm of Christianity who believe that miraculous spiritual gifts, such as healing by the laying on of hands, speaking in tongues, and prophecy are readily available today. The question is does the Bible teach this? What are the results if this is true or untrue?
If the claim of miraculous spiritual gifts is true, then there are a large number of Christians who are out of tune with God's Holy Spirit and are ignoring a greater relationship with God. But if the assertion is wrong there are those who are walking down the dark path of deception.
Those who defend the claim of miracles being around today, suggest that the power to perform miracles comes from the baptism of the Holy Spirit. The claim is that once a Christian is baptized in the Holy Spirit the gift of tongues, healing and prophecy are able to be used. Only an exegetical study of the book of Acts can explain the means by which the baptism of the Holy Spirit was given.
In Acts 1 we see that Jesus gathered the apostles together, the ones he had chosen, and commanded them not to leave Jerusalem and wait for what the father had promised. Jesus explains that they would be baptized with the Holy Spirit "not many days from now" (Acts 1:2-5). Jesus also said that once the power of the Holy Spirit had fallen upon them they would then go and spread the gospel to the remotest parts of the earth (Acts 1:8). The outpouring of the Spirit would be the method by which the apostles would be empowered and allow the apostles to remember everything that Jesus taugh. (John 14:26;15:25-26; 16:13).From the text we can gather that the promise of the baptism of the Holy Spirit was only to the ones that Jesus chose, the apostles, which was fulfilled in Acts 2 on the day of Pentecost. An illustration of the text could be expressed in a common day scenario. For instance if I promise my brother 100 dollars does that mean my best friend is entitled to the same promise? of course not. In the same way Jesus promised the baptism of the Holy Spirit to the apostles, does that mean that this promise is good for us today?
The second occurrence of the baptism of the Holy Spirit is in Acts 10. This is the account of the conversion of Cornelius, the first Gentile to be saved. We see the Holy Spirit being poured out while Peter begins speaking(Acts 10:44, 11:15). Well how do we know this was the baptism of the Holy Spirit? Peter suggests that the no one could refuse the water for these men to be baptized since they received the Spirit just as the rest of the apostles did (Acts 10:47). Peter also tells the group of Jewsish leaders in Jerusalem, who he had a disagreement with, that he remembered about the promise that John the Baptist made about being "baptized with the Holy Spirit"(Acts 11:16). The reason for the baptism of the Holy Spirit was to show the Jews that the Gentiles had the right to the repentance that leads to salvation (Acts 11:18). As workmen of God's word, it must be noted that this was a significant event by which the Gentiles would be shown the door to the Kingdom of God. But how would the Jews believe this kind of claim? God gave irrifutable evidence by using a miraculous event that no Jew could refute.
It should also be noted that these are the only two accounts of the baptism of the Holy Spirit throughout the entire New Testament. If the bapitsm of the Holy Spirit was for every believer how come there are no more occurences of this great event in the Bible? Wouldn't the baptism of the Holy Spirit be more prevelant through the early Church? Would Luke ignore recording these events down?
A clear study of the text shows that there were two specific reason for the baptism of the Holy Spirit, to empower the Apostles and to show the Jews that the Gentiles had an equal right to be apart of God's Kingdom. Therefore, the claim that everyone who believes in God can obtain the baptism of the Holy Spirit can only mean one of two things. Either Jesus lied about the outpouring only being for the apostles or the stance that every believer can obtain it is false. If Jesus Christ is the Son of God he cannot lie, therefore the proposition that believers can gain the outpouring of the Holy Spirit must be wrong.
Dean Meadows
I encourage eveyone who reads this blog to post their ideas about the blog or the information give. I also encourage everyone to be a "dilegent workman of the word" (2:2:15). Please do not take my word as truth but examine the scriptures yourself.
9 comments:
Brother I would respond with my own personal thoughts but that could take up pages, so here is basically what I see as a much better understanding of the biblical text on Spritual gifts et al from a great scholar in the churches of Christ.
http://www.edwardfudge.com/written/pentecosttext.html
And,
http://www.edwardfudge.com/written/pentecosttext.html
For that one you need to click no the link on the left side under bible studies that says "The purpose and duration of spiritual gifts," because it is a Word document.
Sorry I didnt personally respond, but our brother Edward here gives you what I would have given, but in much greater scholarly detail.
I love your blog although I want to make two comments.
1.
You say Acts 1 and Acts 10 are the only "two accounts of the baptism of the Holy Spirit throughout the entire New Testament." Did you read into Acts 2? Yes, the disciples were the only ones who were speaking in tongues on that day of Pentecost; because they were the first to receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. BUT Peter addresses to the massive crowd in verse 38.- "Repent and be baptized, every one of you, in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins. And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. 39.- The promise is for you and your children and for all who are far off-for all whom the Lord our God will call." I'm not saying every believer will speak in tongues like the disciples. I'm saying this day of Pentecost in Chapter 2 marks the coming of the Holy Spirit and being accessible... not the coming and leaving. The Holy Spirit resides in every believer who has asked God into their hearts.(Romans 8:9) I believe that makes 3 accounts though.
2.
You might also want to read 1 Corinthians 12- the Spiritual Gifts Chapter. Starting at verse 4.-"There are different kinds of gifts, but the same Spirit. There are different kinds of service, but the same Lord. There are different kinds of working, but the same God works all of them in all men. Now to each one the manifestation of the Spirit is given for the common good..." He lists many gifts, but the one I want to point out is the one in verse 10.-"...to another speaking in different kinds of tongues, and to still another the interpretation of tongues. 11.- All these are the work of one and the same Spirit, and he gives them to each one, just as he determines." From 1 Corinthians 12, I gather that
YES- not all believers will have the gift of speaking in tongues; but it is not un-biblical to say that Christians today, through the Holy Spirit, can speak in tongues when it is God's timing. oh and the speaking of tongues is also referenced in verse 28- telling about how the church is a body composed of many parts and naming some "parts" like gift of tongues.
I believe if you delve a little deeper, there are more verses of scripture that reference the spiritual gift of tongues. My comments may be slightly hard to "put together" because I'm mildly A.D.D. I tried my best though.
Well I would disagree with professor fudge that the baptism of the Holy Spirit is for everyone considering these passages
"Wonders and signs were done through the apostles"(Acts 2:43).
"By the hands of the apostles were many signs and wonders done" (Acts 5:12) these are interesting verses if everyone could have the baptism of the holy spirit.
secondly how does that assertion hold up to Further, in 1st Corinthians 12, Paul frames a series of questions regarding supernatural gifts:
“Are all apostles? are all prophets? are all teachers? are all workers of miracles? do all have the gifts of healings? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret?” (29-30). the
implication is that not everyone in the early church had the ability to obtain these supernatural gifts.
I would also like to ask the question, what about the full revelation of God's word? Is that enough to get us to heaven?
Take care and God Bless
Alienated:
I would like to thank you for that i've corrected the post and noted that the fulfillment of Jesus promise came about on the day of pentecost.
I am going to address tongue speaking as the 3rd part of my blog so I would prefer to talk to you more about that subject after the blog post is put up. I don't mean to use that to dodge the question, but I'd like to just discuss the baptism of the holy spirit i'll have the post about tongue speaking up as soon as possible. I would love to discuss that aspect with you further.
However, the problem we face when we suggest that we are promised the baptism of the holy spirit, is we run into a stumbling block, considering Ephesians 4:4 where Paul writes there is only one baptism. Now the question is which one is he talking about? Furthermore if there is only one baptism and we are practicing two baptisms, one of the two is no longer around or valid? So which one is it. I would suggest that since the only baptism Paul and Peter refer to is a baptism in water (Acts 6:3-4, 1 Peter 3:21, Titus 3:5, Acts 2:28) that the baptism of the Holy Spirit is the one that is with us no more. At baptism we receive the indwelling of the holy spirit not the miraculous gifts. the only way that would be able to happen is through the laying on the hands of the apostles (Acts 6:1,8). If everyone could heal and do miracles, how can we reconcile that with Philip calling up Peter and John to Samaria to impart the miraculous gift to those that were baptized for the forgiveness of sins? Couldn't he have done it himself?
But I do freely acknowledge that there were spritual gifts in the early church. However they were for a specific reason. The apostles possessed miraculous gifts to confirm the word (Mark 16:19, John 20:30-31, Hebrews 2:4).
Secondly, there was a need for the apostles to pass on the gifts to people in the early church. Since there was no written word they had to have some way of receiving direction from God, in order that the apostles such as Paul and Peter could carry the gospel to the remotest parts of the world. How could the do this if they had to stay and manage churches? So they imparted gifts to leaders of the church to receive revelation from God.
Finally, the Bible tells us that tongues and prophecy will go away (1 Corinthians 13:8-13). If we have the full revelation of God, the Bible, do we need miraculous gifts anymore to confirm the word. I would suggest that we don't because we know that God's word equips us for teaching, correcting and reproofing (2 Timothy 2:15).
I honestly thank you for taking the time to read my blog and comment I appreciate your thoughts and comments. By doing so you allow me to look deeper into God's word and strenthen my faith, while examining different views. May God bless you!
You say "secondly how does that assertion hold up to Further, in 1st Corinthians 12, Paul frames a series of questions regarding supernatural gifts:
'Are all apostles? are all prophets? are all teachers? are all workers of miracles? do all have the gifts of healings? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret?' (29-30). the
implication is that not everyone in the early church had the ability to obtain these supernatural gifts."
I can see your point of view if only reading these two verses; but if you read the verses as a whole with the entire chapter you see that he's talking about the body being made up of different parts and so different functions. I believe Paul is saying that not all people have one spiritual gift, NOT that he's implying. And seeing Paul's character, Paul was outright. Why would he be simply "implying?" He would be outright blunt saying you cannot obtain these gifts.
Alienated:
I see your point, however is Paul not being outright? Contextually he is talking about the entire body of Christ, yet he says that their will be different roles, suggesting that some will have certain roles and others will not. Paul is saying that there are going to be those that don't have miraculous gifts by saying are "all workers of miracles?" Paul is saying that some people would receive the ability and some wouldn't. If everyone were going to have the ability receive miraculous spiritual gifts...why even make the statement?
I don't mean any disrepect. But I would like to understand your postion about the one baptism that Paul talks about in Ephesians 4:4? Like I noted before if Paul, who is an inspired writer, says there is only one baptism and we suggest that there are two is that a problem scripturally? Therefore another question comes to mind which one is valid and which one is no longer here? I would refer you to Acts 2:38; Romans 6:3; Titus 3:5, Acts 8:29-40; Acts 16:14-15,25-33; 1 Peter 3:21. Each of these cases involves water baptism.
Specifically we see in 1 Peter 3:21 that Baptism saves not by a removal of dirt from the flesh but by an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ. Do we ever have an account where the baptism of the Holy Spirit (in either Acts 2 or 10) removes dirt from the flesh. Therefore, the only logical answer as to which baptism is around today would have to be water baptism.
Secondly, what is our view on 1 Corinthians 13:8-13? where Paul writes that gifts will be done away with?
Once again I really do appreciate the conversation we are having. I understand we should each are looking for truth and what better way to find truth than to examine the scriptures. Have a great day and Christmas. May God bless you.
That is not at all what Paul is saying. He is saying that everyone has different gifts and different callings. I think you are making there be an implication there that just isnt. He makes this same argument in other places, ie. "one body, many parts." He is pointing out to a Corinthian church that is putting too much emphasis on certain gifts that God has gifted everyone differently. Same thing in Eph. about one baptism, the intent is that there is only baptism in Christ, not in Apollos or Paul et al. It is from God and no one else that is clearly Paul's point.
As far as Paul's writing about the cessation of the gifts the only thing that makes sense is that they will cease when Jesus returns. Think about it. Love never fails. Love is the only thing that will last. That is why it is the greatest, both faith and hope will cease to be when Jesus returns because there is no need for either at that point.
Plus, Paul says when perfection comes. So I know the argument goes that means the bible. But which version? I mean the cannon wasnt formalized until several generations after the Apostles. So what happened in the interm when folks had neither the bible nor Spiritual gifts. The logic just doenst make sense. Also, calling Scripture the perfect is teetering on idolatry, because only God is perfect. Jesus himself said that.
Everything in Paul's language points to the return of Christ. He even says we will see face to face. That language is clearly about seeing Christ, not having a formalized cannon for the bible.
As for what you say about only Apostles doing things in Acts, that doenst fit with the fact that others were doing miraculous things throughout the rest of the NT. The text of Acts focused on the Apostles because narratively that makes sense. They were the leaders of the early church thus the story focused on their journeys and ministry. That hardly even implies that they were the only ones doing miraculous things. Again we see that the early church was taking part in these miraculous gifts throughout Paul's letters.
Finally, its not just about getting to heaven. Its about being empowered to live and minister like Jesus. The notion that the only reason we are Christians is to get to heaven is just bad eschatology. We are here now and we participate in the Kingdom right here right now. Thus one of the reasons we are given the gifts of the Spirit.
First off, it's Ephesians 4:5 that talks about the baptism and it states "...one Lord, one Faith, one baptism;..." I believe he's talking about the baptism of the Holy Spirit because if you read the entire thought, he's not talking about "acts" (i.e. water baptism is an act). He's simply saying there is only one Truth, one faith (in God), one baptism (in God [Holy Spirit]), one Lord, one God and Father of all; and none of those seem like acts.
I think he was just making sure the Ephesians knew that there was only one way to heaven and that was through God.
Water baptism is merely a public act, saying you are living for God.
Anyways, I'm tired of going back and forth because we obviously believe what we have been taught and we aren't going to change each others minds. So I'm bowing out but will continue to look in. Merry Christmas!
rogue i'll get back to you after Christmas break
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